Free GMAT Practice Test With Answers and Explanations

Welcome to our GMAT Sample Questions practice test, complete with answer key and answer explanations. Remember that the real GMAT lets you choose the order of your test sections, so feel free to start with the Quant or Verbal section.

And for more practice questions of similarly high quality, plus expert-taught live classes and video lessons, consider choosing a Magoosh GMAT plan!

Table of Contents

• Free GMAT Sample Questions
• GMAT Practice Test Answers and Explanations
• Difference Between These GMAT Sample questions and the Real Exam
• How to Get a Rough Estimate of Your Score
• What to Expect from This GMAT Practice Exam
  • Quant
  • Verbal
  • IR and AWA
• Official GMAT Practice Tests: Another Important Resource
• Planning the Rest of Your GMAT Prep

Free GMAT Sample Questions by Magoosh

1
• Quant

1111111111111111111111111111112

• Verbal

22222222222222222222222222222222222

 1%

Question 1 of 67

Quant

1. Choose the correct answer. 
If k is an odd integer, which of the following must be an even integer?

k2 − 4

3k + 2

2k + 1

(12k)/8

(6k)/3

Question 1 of 67

Question 2 of 67

2. Choose the correct answer. 
If k is an integer and k = 462/n, then which of the following could be the value of n?

4

5

9

13

22

Question 2 of 67

Question 3 of 67

3. Choose the correct answer. 
How many positive integers less than 100 have a remainder of 2 when divided by 13?

6

7

8

9

10

Question 3 of 67

Question 4 of 67

4. Choose the correct answer. 
Joan has 100 candies to distribute among 10 children. If each child receives at least 1 candy and no two children receive the same number of candies, what is the maximum number of candies that a child can receive?

10

34

39

45

55

Question 4 of 67

Question 5 of 67

5. Choose the correct answer. 
If the average (arithmetic mean) of x, y and 15 is 9, and the average of x, 2y and 2 is 7, then y =

5

6

7

8

9

Question 5 of 67

Question 6 of 67

6. Choose the correct answer. 
If (4/w) + (4/x) = (4/y), and wx = y, then the average (arithmetic mean) of w and x is

1/2

1

2

4

8

Question 6 of 67

Question 7 of 67

7. Choose the correct answer. 
In how many different ways can 3 identical green shirts and 3 identical red shirts be distributed among 6 children such that each child receives a shirt?

20

40

216

720

729

Question 7 of 67

Question 8 of 67

8. Choose the correct answer. 
In the figure, JKLMNP is a regular hexagon. Find the measure of ∠MQN.
 

30°

45°

50°

60°

75°

Question 8 of 67

Question 9 of 67

9. Choose the correct answer. 
If the population of Townville went from 2105 to 1705, then the percent decrease in population is closest to

19

21

22

23

24

Question 9 of 67

Question 10 of 67

10. Choose the correct answer. 
The system of equations has how many solutions?
 
3x − 6y = 9
 
2y − x − 3 = 0

None

Exactly 1

Exactly 2

Exactly 3

Infinitely many

Question 10 of 67

Question 11 of 67

11. Choose the correct answer. 
If x ≠ 2.5 and 2x = |15 – 4x|, then x =

3.5

4.5

5.5

6.5

7.5

Question 11 of 67

Question 12 of 67

12. Choose the correct answer. 
What is the sum of all possible solutions of the equation:
 
|x + 4|² – 10|x + 4| = 24?

-16

-14

-12

-8

-6

Question 12 of 67

Question 13 of 67

13. Choose the correct answer. 
If 2ᴬ = 3 and 2ᴮ = 5, then 2²ᴬ⁺ᴮ =

11

30

45

75

225

Question 13 of 67

Question 14 of 67

14. Choose the correct answer. 
When a certain coin is flipped, the probability of heads is 0.5. If the coin is flipped 6 times, what is the probability that there are exactly 3 heads?

1/4

1/3

5/16

31/64

1/2

Question 14 of 67

Question 15 of 67

15. Choose the correct answer. 
Working alone, pump A can empty a pool in 3 hours. Working alone, pump B can empty the same pool in 2 hours. Working together, how many minutes will it take pump A and pump B to empty the pool?

72

75

84

96

108

Question 15 of 67

Question 16 of 67

16. Choose the correct answer. 
If an object travels 100 feet in 2 seconds, what is the object’s approximate speed in miles per hour? (Note: 1 mile = 5280 feet)

3.4

3.8

34

38

340

Question 16 of 67

Question 17 of 67

17. Choose the correct statement. 
If x and y are integers, is the product xy odd?
 
(1) x = -5
 
(2) x and y are consecutive integers

Statement 1 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is NOT sufficient.

Statement 2 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is NOT sufficient.

BOTH statements 1 and 2 TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

Each statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement 1 and 2 TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question.

Question 17 of 67

Question 18 of 67

18. Choose the correct statement. 
k is an integer from 1 to 9 inclusive. If N = 29736 + k , what is the value of k ?
 
(1) N is divisible by 9
 
(2) N is divisible by 5

Statement 1 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is NOT sufficient.

Statement 2 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is NOT sufficient.

BOTH statements 1 and 2 TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

Each statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement 1 and 2 TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question.

Question 18 of 67

Question 19 of 67

19. Choose the correct statement. 
What is the remainder when positive integer n is divided by 4?
 
(1) When n is divided by 8, the remainder is 1.
 
(2) When n is divided by 2, the remainder is 1.

Statement 1 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is NOT sufficient.

Statement 2 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is NOT sufficient.

BOTH statements 1 and 2 TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

Each statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement 1 and 2 TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question.

Question 19 of 67

Question 20 of 67

20. Choose the correct statement. 
What is the value of y?
 
(1) 3y – 1 = √8y​² − 4y+9​ 
​(2) y² – 2y – 8 = 0

Statement 1 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is NOT sufficient.

Statement 2 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is NOT sufficient.

BOTH statements 1 and 2 TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

Each statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement 1 and 2 TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question.

Question 20 of 67

Question 21 of 67

21. Choose the correct statement. 
What is the average (arithmetic mean) of a, b, c and d?
 
(1) The average of a, b and c is 6
 
(2) The average of b, c and d is 6

Statement 1 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is NOT sufficient.

Statement 2 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is NOT sufficient.

BOTH statements 1 and 2 TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

Each statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement 1 and 2 TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question.

Question 21 of 67

Question 22 of 67

22. Choose the correct statement. 
What is the average (arithmetic mean) of x and y?
 
(1) The average (arithmetic mean) of x, y and k is 7.
 
(2) The average (arithmetic mean) of x, y and 3k is 13.

Statement 1 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is NOT sufficient.

Statement 2 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is NOT sufficient.

BOTH statements 1 and 2 TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

Each statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement 1 and 2 TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question.

Question 22 of 67

Question 23 of 67

23. Choose the correct statement. 
In a certain group, the average (arithmetic mean) age of the males is 28, and the average age of the females is 30. If there are 100 people in the group, how many of them are males?
 
(1) The average age of all 100 people is 28.9
 
(2) There are 10 more males than there are females.

Statement 1 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is NOT sufficient.

Statement 2 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is NOT sufficient.

BOTH statements 1 and 2 TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

Each statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement 1 and 2 TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question.

Question 23 of 67

Question 24 of 67

24. Choose the correct statement. 
 
In the diagram above, coordinates are given for three of the vertices of quadrilateral ABCD. Does quadrilateral ABCD have an area greater than 30?
 
(1) point B has an x-coordinate of 4
 
(2) quadrilateral ABCD is a parallelogram

Statement 1 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is NOT sufficient.

Statement 2 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is NOT sufficient.

BOTH statements 1 and 2 TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

Each statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement 1 and 2 TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question.

Question 24 of 67

Question 25 of 67

25. Choose the correct statement. 
If the circle has radius 6, what is the area of the triangle?
 
(1) AC = AB
 
(2) BC = 12
 

Statement 1 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is NOT sufficient.

Statement 2 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is NOT sufficient.

BOTH statements 1 and 2 TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

Each statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement 1 and 2 TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question.

Question 25 of 67

Question 26 of 67

26. Choose the correct statement. 
In a group of 80 college students, how many own a car?
 
(1) Of the students who do not own a car, 14 are male.
 
(2) Of the students who own a car, 42% are female.

Statement 1 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is NOT sufficient.

Statement 2 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is NOT sufficient.

BOTH statements 1 and 2 TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

Each statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement 1 and 2 TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question.

Question 26 of 67

Question 27 of 67

27. Choose the correct statement. 
Is x > y?
 
(1) x – y – 1 > 0
 
(2) x – y + 1 > 0

Statement 1 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is NOT sufficient.

Statement 2 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is NOT sufficient.

BOTH statements 1 and 2 TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

Each statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement 1 and 2 TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question.

Question 27 of 67

Question 28 of 67

28. Choose the correct statement. 
Is x > 5?
 
(1) x < 6
 
(2) x < 4

Statement 1 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is NOT sufficient.

Statement 2 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is NOT sufficient.

BOTH statements 1 and 2 TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

Each statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement 1 and 2 TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question.

Question 28 of 67

Question 29 of 67

29. Choose the correct statement.
 
If x is a positive integer, is √​x an integer?
 
(1) √36x is an integer
 
(2) √3x + 4

Statement 1 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is NOT sufficient.

Statement 2 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is NOT sufficient.

BOTH statements 1 and 2 TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

Each statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement 1 and 2 TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question.

Question 29 of 67

Question 30 of 67

30. Choose the correct statement. 
Robin drove from Townville to Villageton. Upon arriving in Villageton, she immediately returned to Townville by the same route. What was Robin’s average speed for the entire trip?
 
(1) While driving from Townville to Villageton, Robin’s average speed was 40 miles per hour. While driving from Villageton to Townville, Robin’s average speed was 60 miles per hour.
 
(2) The distance from Townville to Villageton is 120 miles.

Statement 1 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is NOT sufficient.

Statement 2 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is NOT sufficient.

BOTH statements 1 and 2 TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

Each statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement 1 and 2 TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question.

Question 30 of 67

Question 31 of 67

31. Choose the correct statement. 
The Townville museum was open for 7 consecutive days. If the number of visitors each day was 3 greater than the previous day, how many visitors were there on the first day?
 
(1) There were a total of 126 visitors for the 7 days.
 
(2) The number of visitors on the seventh day was three times the number of visitors on the first day.

Statement 1 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is NOT sufficient.

Statement 2 ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is NOT sufficient.

BOTH statements 1 and 2 TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

Each statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement 1 and 2 TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question.

Question 31 of 67

Question 32 of 67

Verbal

32. Choose the option that best completes the underlined part of the sentence. 
Amalgamated Copper Corporation’s sudden purchase of 200 million shares of Cupric Thunder, one-third of the latter’s publicly traded shares, seems like a suggestion of A.C.C., despite its press releases, is planning to acquire and subsume Cupric Thunder.

like a suggestion of

like it is suggestive that

suggestive of

as if to suggest

to suggest that

Question 32 of 67

Question 33 of 67

33. Choose the option that best completes the underlined part of the sentence. 
Punctuated equilibrium is a biological theory that regards evolution not as a gradual process by which one species slowly and continuously transforms into another, rather a process in which species were remaining stable for long periods and then have dramatic change in isolated short bursts.

rather a process in which species were remaining stable for long periods and then have dramatic change

but as a process in which species remain stable for long periods and change dramatically

but a process in which species remain stable for long periods and then have dramatic change

but as a process in which species remained stable for long periods and changing dramatically

but also as a process in which species were remaining stable for long periods and were changing dramatically

Question 33 of 67

Question 34 of 67

34. Choose the option that best completes the underlined part of the sentence. 
The twenty-four biochemical labs in the state all compete for shares of the same government allotment, and so all strive to present their case for funding more successfully than each other.

all strive to present their case for funding more successfully than each other

all strive more successfully to present their own case for funding than the others

each strives to present their case for funding more successfully than one other

each strives to present its case for funding more successfully than the others

each strives successfully to present its case for funding than another

Question 34 of 67

Question 35 of 67

35. Choose the option that best completes the underlined part of the sentence. 
The Coriolis Effect is responsible for the apparent forces that turn ocean currents and storm systems clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere, but what is appearing as a force is just the inertia of the matter that obeys Conservation of Angular Momentum.

turn ocean currents and storm systems clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere, but what is appearing as a force is just the inertia of the matter that obeys

in the Northern Hemisphere turn ocean currents and storm systems clockwise, but what appears to be a force, just the inertia of the matter, obeys

turn ocean currents and storm systems in the Northern Hemisphere clockwise, that appear as a force, and that is just the inertia of the matter, which obeys

turn ocean currents and storm systems clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere, but what appears as a force is just the inertia of the matter obeying

have turned ocean currents and storm systems clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere, and that is just the inertia of the matter that appears as a force obeying

Question 35 of 67

Question 36 of 67

36. Choose the option that best completes the underlined part of the sentence. 
A prolific writer, Sir Walter Scott’s works include the poem The Lady of the Lake and the historical novels Ivanhoe and Waverley.

A prolific writer, Sir Walter Scott’s works include

The works of Sir Walter Scott, a prolific writer, include

Sir Walter Scott was a prolific writer including in his works

Included in the prolific writer Sir Walter Scott’s works are

The prolific writer’s works of Sir Walter Scott include

Question 36 of 67

Question 37 of 67

37. Choose the option that best completes the underlined part of the sentence. 
Balancing the need for sufficient food supplies with what constitutes a manageable load to carry was undoubtedly a concern at times for many ancient hunters and gatherers, like that for modern long-distance backpackers.

like that for modern long-distance backpackers

as that of modern long-distance backpackers

just as modern long-distance backpackers do

as do modern long-distance backpackers

as it is for modern long-distance backpackers

Question 37 of 67

Question 38 of 67

38. Choose the option that best completes the underlined part of the sentence. 
Had the United States allowed the California Republic to remain independent after the Bear Flag Revolt rather than annexing it with military force, this “California nation” might have become the wealthiest nation in North America.

Had the United States allowed the California Republic to remain independent after the Bear Flag Revolt rather than annexing it with military force, this “California nation” might have become

With the United States annexing the California Republic after the Bear Flag Revolt instead of allowing it to remain independent, this “California nation” didn’t become

The United States annexed the California Republic after the Bear Flag Revolt and didn’t allow it to remain independent, to prevent it to become

The United States didn’t allow the California Republic to remain independent after the Bear Flag Revolt, it annexed it with military force instead, and this “California nation” didn’t become

The United States, by not allowing the California Republic to remain independent after the Bear Flag Revolt and, instead, by annexing it, it prevented this “California nation” from becoming

Question 38 of 67

Question 39 of 67

39. Choose the option that best completes the underlined part of the sentence. 
Quintus Horatius Flaccus (65 – 8 BCE), known in the English-speaking world as “Horace”, was a contemporary of Virgil and the preeminent lyrical poet of the Augustan age; his poems were known as the “common currency of civilization” because they were so widely read and quoted, and over the past two millennia have had a much greater influence than any poet from ancient Rome.

than any

than any other

as any other

as those of any other

than those of any other

Question 39 of 67

Question 40 of 67

40. Choose the option that best completes the underlined part of the sentence. 
The income categories of Senator Crocker’s proposed tax code are as broad as to fail to distinguish the sale of an old chair at a pawnshop from collecting profits in a sophisticated stock option move.

as broad as to fail to distinguish the sale of an old chair at a pawnshop from collecting profits in

as broad as to fail in distinguishing between the sale of an old chair at a pawnshop and collecting profits from

so broad as to fail to distinguish selling an old chair at a pawnshop and collecting profits from

so broad as to fail to distinguish selling an old chair at a pawnshop from collecting profits in

so broad that he fails in distinguishing between selling chair at a pawnshop from the profits in

Question 40 of 67

Question 41 of 67

41. Choose the option that best completes the underlined part of the sentence. 
A famed alchemist in the early sixteenth century, Paracelsus’ contributions to modern science included the rudiments of what later became toxicology as well as the name of the element zinc.

A famed alchemist in the early sixteenth century, Paracelsus’ contributions to modern science included

Paracelsus’s famous alchemical contribution to modern science in the early sixteenth century included

Paracelsus was a famed alchemist in the early sixteenth century including in his contributions to modern science

Paracelsus, a famed alchemist in the early sixteenth century, his contributions to modern science included

Paracelsus, the famous early sixteenth century alchemist, made contributions to modern science, including

Question 41 of 67

Question 42 of 67

42. Choose the option that best completes the underlined part of the sentence. 
The many extant fossils yet to be attributed to a species suggest that our classification of extinct species is either deficient, with many unclassified species meriting distinct branches on the taxonomic tree, or that our method of identification is lacking, with many fossils indeed attributable to known extinct species.

to be attributed to a species suggest that our classification of extinct species is either deficient, with many unclassified species meriting distinct branches on the taxonomic tree, or that

attributed to a species suggest that our classification of extinct species is either deficient, and that many unclassified species merit a distinct branch on the taxonomic tree, or that

to be attributed to a species suggest our classification of species that are extinct is either deficient, because many unclassified species merit on the taxonomic tree a distinct branch, or

to be attributed to a species suggest either that our classification of extinct species is deficient, many unclassified species meriting distinct branches on the taxonomic tree, or that

attributed to a species suggests that our classification of extinct species is either deficient, because many unclassified species merit distinct branches on the taxonomic tree, or

Question 42 of 67

Question 43 of 67

43. Choose the option that best completes the underlined part of the sentence. 
In the “dead-ball” era of 1900-1919, Major League Baseball hitters in both leagues hit an average total of 370 home runs each season, more than 60% percent less than those in the 1920s.

less than those in the 1920s

less than in the 1920s

less than the 1920s

fewer than the 1920s

fewer than that of the seasons in the 1920s

Question 43 of 67

Question 44 of 67

44. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
Originally, scientists predicted small asteroids to be hard and rocky, as any loose surface material (called regolith) generated by impacts was expected to escape their weak gravity. Aggregate small bodies were not thought to exist, because the slightest sustained relative motion would cause them to separate. But observations and computer modeling are proving otherwise. Most asteroids larger than a kilometer are now believed to be composites of smaller pieces. Those imaged at high-resolution show evidence for copious regolith despite the weak gravity. Most of them have one or more extraordinarily large craters, some of which are wider than the mean radius of the whole body. Such colossal impacts would not just gouge out a crater—they would break any monolithic body into pieces. In short, asteroids larger than a kilometer across may look like nuggets of hard rock but are more likely to be aggregate assemblages—or even piles of loose rubble so pervasively fragmented that no solid bedrock is left.
 
The rubble hypothesis, proposed decades ago by scientists, lacked evidence, until the planetologist Schumaker realized that the huge craters on the asteroid Mathilde and its very low density could only make sense together: a porous body such as a rubble pile can withstand a battering much better than an integral object. It will absorb and dissipate a large fraction of the energy of an impact; the far side might hardly feel a thing. At first, the rubble hypothesis may appear conceptually troublesome. The material strength of an asteroid is nearly zero, and the gravity is so low one is tempted to neglect that too. The truth is neither strength nor gravity can be ignored. Paltry though it may be, gravity binds a rubble pile together. And anybody who builds sandcastles knows that even loose debris can cohere. Oft-ignored details of motion begin to matter: sliding friction, chemical bonding, damping of kinetic energy, etc. We are just beginning to fathom the subtle interplay of these minuscule forces.
 
The size of an asteroid should determine which force dominates. One indication is the observed pattern of asteroidal rotation rates. Some collisions cause an asteroid to spin faster; others slow it down. If asteroids are monolithic rocks undergoing random collisions, a graph of their rotation rates should show a bell-shaped distribution with a statistical “tail” of very fast rotators. If nearly all asteroids are rubble piles, however, this tail would be missing, because any rubble pile spinning faster than once every two or three hours fly apart. Recently, several astronomers discovered that all but five observed asteroids obey a strict rotation limit. The exceptions are all smaller than about 150 meters in diameter, with an abrupt cutoff for asteroids larger than 200 meters. The evident conclusion—that asteroids larger than 200 meters across are rubble piles—agrees with recent computer modeling of collisions. A collision can blast a large asteroid to bits, but those bits will usually be moving slower than their mutual escape velocity (the lowest velocity that a body must have in order to escape the orbit of a planet). Over several hours, gravity will reassemble all but the fastest pieces into a rubble pile.
 
Question: Scientists originally believed that asteroids lacked regolith because

a sizeable enough impact would cause all accumulated surface material to become dislodged

the gravitational forces of asteroids were too weak to hold any aggregation of matter together

computer models had shown that loose pieces of rock tend to come dislodged from even the slightest impact

regolith was absent from smaller planets lacking an atmosphere

the velocity of asteroids was so great as to cause any loose matter to easily float off into space

Question 44 of 67

Question 45 of 67

45. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
Originally, scientists predicted small asteroids to be hard and rocky, as any loose surface material (called regolith) generated by impacts was expected to escape their weak gravity. Aggregate small bodies were not thought to exist, because the slightest sustained relative motion would cause them to separate. But observations and computer modeling are proving otherwise. Most asteroids larger than a kilometer are now believed to be composites of smaller pieces. Those imaged at high-resolution show evidence for copious regolith despite the weak gravity. Most of them have one or more extraordinarily large craters, some of which are wider than the mean radius of the whole body. Such colossal impacts would not just gouge out a crater—they would break any monolithic body into pieces. In short, asteroids larger than a kilometer across may look like nuggets of hard rock but are more likely to be aggregate assemblages—or even piles of loose rubble so pervasively fragmented that no solid bedrock is left.
 
The rubble hypothesis, proposed decades ago by scientists, lacked evidence, until the planetologist Schumaker realized that the huge craters on the asteroid Mathilde and its very low density could only make sense together: a porous body such as a rubble pile can withstand a battering much better than an integral object. It will absorb and dissipate a large fraction of the energy of an impact; the far side might hardly feel a thing. At first, the rubble hypothesis may appear conceptually troublesome. The material strength of an asteroid is nearly zero, and the gravity is so low one is tempted to neglect that too. The truth is neither strength nor gravity can be ignored. Paltry though it may be, gravity binds a rubble pile together. And anybody who builds sandcastles knows that even loose debris can cohere. Oft-ignored details of motion begin to matter: sliding friction, chemical bonding, damping of kinetic energy, etc. We are just beginning to fathom the subtle interplay of these minuscule forces.
 
The size of an asteroid should determine which force dominates. One indication is the observed pattern of asteroidal rotation rates. Some collisions cause an asteroid to spin faster; others slow it down. If asteroids are monolithic rocks undergoing random collisions, a graph of their rotation rates should show a bell-shaped distribution with a statistical “tail” of very fast rotators. If nearly all asteroids are rubble piles, however, this tail would be missing, because any rubble pile spinning faster than once every two or three hours fly apart. Recently, several astronomers discovered that all but five observed asteroids obey a strict rotation limit. The exceptions are all smaller than about 150 meters in diameter, with an abrupt cutoff for asteroids larger than 200 meters. The evident conclusion—that asteroids larger than 200 meters across are rubble piles—agrees with recent computer modeling of collisions. A collision can blast a large asteroid to bits, but those bits will usually be moving slower than their mutual escape velocity (the lowest velocity that a body must have in order to escape the orbit of a planet). Over several hours, gravity will reassemble all but the fastest pieces into a rubble pile.
 
Question: How would the author of the passage most likely respond to the assertion of another scientist claiming that a crater greater than the radius of an asteroid is a result of an impact?

Asteroids actually contain a significant amount of regolith despite the force of weak gravity.

Because of a great degree of fragmentation such an asteroid would have to have a solid bedrock.

Such a crater would most probably result from a series of small impacts over a period of time.

Most asteroids are held together by a series of forces that are often unstable.

This claim would constitute evidence that the asteroid is not monolithic.

Question 45 of 67

Question 46 of 67

46. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
Originally, scientists predicted small asteroids to be hard and rocky, as any loose surface material (called regolith) generated by impacts was expected to escape their weak gravity. Aggregate small bodies were not thought to exist, because the slightest sustained relative motion would cause them to separate. But observations and computer modeling are proving otherwise. Most asteroids larger than a kilometer are now believed to be composites of smaller pieces. Those imaged at high-resolution show evidence for copious regolith despite the weak gravity. Most of them have one or more extraordinarily large craters, some of which are wider than the mean radius of the whole body. Such colossal impacts would not just gouge out a crater—they would break any monolithic body into pieces. In short, asteroids larger than a kilometer across may look like nuggets of hard rock but are more likely to be aggregate assemblages—or even piles of loose rubble so pervasively fragmented that no solid bedrock is left.
 
The rubble hypothesis, proposed decades ago by scientists, lacked evidence, until the planetologist Schumaker realized that the huge craters on the asteroid Mathilde and its very low density could only make sense together: a porous body such as a rubble pile can withstand a battering much better than an integral object. It will absorb and dissipate a large fraction of the energy of an impact; the far side might hardly feel a thing. At first, the rubble hypothesis may appear conceptually troublesome. The material strength of an asteroid is nearly zero, and the gravity is so low one is tempted to neglect that too. The truth is neither strength nor gravity can be ignored. Paltry though it may be, gravity binds a rubble pile together. And anybody who builds sandcastles knows that even loose debris can cohere. Oft-ignored details of motion begin to matter: sliding friction, chemical bonding, damping of kinetic energy, etc. We are just beginning to fathom the subtle interplay of these minuscule forces.
 
The size of an asteroid should determine which force dominates. One indication is the observed pattern of asteroidal rotation rates. Some collisions cause an asteroid to spin faster; others slow it down. If asteroids are monolithic rocks undergoing random collisions, a graph of their rotation rates should show a bell-shaped distribution with a statistical “tail” of very fast rotators. If nearly all asteroids are rubble piles, however, this tail would be missing, because any rubble pile spinning faster than once every two or three hours fly apart. Recently, several astronomers discovered that all but five observed asteroids obey a strict rotation limit. The exceptions are all smaller than about 150 meters in diameter, with an abrupt cutoff for asteroids larger than 200 meters. The evident conclusion—that asteroids larger than 200 meters across are rubble piles—agrees with recent computer modeling of collisions. A collision can blast a large asteroid to bits, but those bits will usually be moving slower than their mutual escape velocity (the lowest velocity that a body must have in order to escape the orbit of a planet). Over several hours, gravity will reassemble all but the fastest pieces into a rubble pile.
 
Question: The example of the sandcastle (in the second paragraph) serves to

invalidate Schumaker’s initial observation

offer an alternative hypothesis for an observed phenomenon

describe a condition in which the typical laws of the universe do not obtain

provide support for the rubble-pile hypothesis

present as instance in which gravity has little effect

Question 46 of 67

Question 47 of 67

47. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
Originally, scientists predicted small asteroids to be hard and rocky, as any loose surface material (called regolith) generated by impacts was expected to escape their weak gravity. Aggregate small bodies were not thought to exist, because the slightest sustained relative motion would cause them to separate. But observations and computer modeling are proving otherwise. Most asteroids larger than a kilometer are now believed to be composites of smaller pieces. Those imaged at high-resolution show evidence for copious regolith despite the weak gravity. Most of them have one or more extraordinarily large craters, some of which are wider than the mean radius of the whole body. Such colossal impacts would not just gouge out a crater—they would break any monolithic body into pieces. In short, asteroids larger than a kilometer across may look like nuggets of hard rock but are more likely to be aggregate assemblages—or even piles of loose rubble so pervasively fragmented that no solid bedrock is left.
 
The rubble hypothesis, proposed decades ago by scientists, lacked evidence, until the planetologist Schumaker realized that the huge craters on the asteroid Mathilde and its very low density could only make sense together: a porous body such as a rubble pile can withstand a battering much better than an integral object. It will absorb and dissipate a large fraction of the energy of an impact; the far side might hardly feel a thing. At first, the rubble hypothesis may appear conceptually troublesome. The material strength of an asteroid is nearly zero, and the gravity is so low one is tempted to neglect that too. The truth is neither strength nor gravity can be ignored. Paltry though it may be, gravity binds a rubble pile together. And anybody who builds sandcastles knows that even loose debris can cohere. Oft-ignored details of motion begin to matter: sliding friction, chemical bonding, damping of kinetic energy, etc. We are just beginning to fathom the subtle interplay of these minuscule forces.
 
The size of an asteroid should determine which force dominates. One indication is the observed pattern of asteroidal rotation rates. Some collisions cause an asteroid to spin faster; others slow it down. If asteroids are monolithic rocks undergoing random collisions, a graph of their rotation rates should show a bell-shaped distribution with a statistical “tail” of very fast rotators. If nearly all asteroids are rubble piles, however, this tail would be missing, because any rubble pile spinning faster than once every two or three hours fly apart. Recently, several astronomers discovered that all but five observed asteroids obey a strict rotation limit. The exceptions are all smaller than about 150 meters in diameter, with an abrupt cutoff for asteroids larger than 200 meters. The evident conclusion—that asteroids larger than 200 meters across are rubble piles—agrees with recent computer modeling of collisions. A collision can blast a large asteroid to bits, but those bits will usually be moving slower than their mutual escape velocity (the lowest velocity that a body must have in order to escape the orbit of a planet). Over several hours, gravity will reassemble all but the fastest pieces into a rubble pile.
 
Question: According to the rubble-pile hypothesis, an advantage conferred on an asteroid held together by weak forces is that it is

unlikely to fall apart over a long period of time

more amenable to computer modeling

less vulnerable to the effects of powerful impacts

not likely to collide with another object

more readily observed by astronomers

Question 47 of 67

Question 48 of 67

48. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
Originally, scientists predicted small asteroids to be hard and rocky, as any loose surface material (called regolith) generated by impacts was expected to escape their weak gravity. Aggregate small bodies were not thought to exist, because the slightest sustained relative motion would cause them to separate. But observations and computer modeling are proving otherwise. Most asteroids larger than a kilometer are now believed to be composites of smaller pieces. Those imaged at high-resolution show evidence for copious regolith despite the weak gravity. Most of them have one or more extraordinarily large craters, some of which are wider than the mean radius of the whole body. Such colossal impacts would not just gouge out a crater—they would break any monolithic body into pieces. In short, asteroids larger than a kilometer across may look like nuggets of hard rock but are more likely to be aggregate assemblages—or even piles of loose rubble so pervasively fragmented that no solid bedrock is left.
 
The rubble hypothesis, proposed decades ago by scientists, lacked evidence, until the planetologist Schumaker realized that the huge craters on the asteroid Mathilde and its very low density could only make sense together: a porous body such as a rubble pile can withstand a battering much better than an integral object. It will absorb and dissipate a large fraction of the energy of an impact; the far side might hardly feel a thing. At first, the rubble hypothesis may appear conceptually troublesome. The material strength of an asteroid is nearly zero, and the gravity is so low one is tempted to neglect that too. The truth is neither strength nor gravity can be ignored. Paltry though it may be, gravity binds a rubble pile together. And anybody who builds sandcastles knows that even loose debris can cohere. Oft-ignored details of motion begin to matter: sliding friction, chemical bonding, damping of kinetic energy, etc. We are just beginning to fathom the subtle interplay of these minuscule forces.
 
The size of an asteroid should determine which force dominates. One indication is the observed pattern of asteroidal rotation rates. Some collisions cause an asteroid to spin faster; others slow it down. If asteroids are monolithic rocks undergoing random collisions, a graph of their rotation rates should show a bell-shaped distribution with a statistical “tail” of very fast rotators. If nearly all asteroids are rubble piles, however, this tail would be missing, because any rubble pile spinning faster than once every two or three hours fly apart. Recently, several astronomers discovered that all but five observed asteroids obey a strict rotation limit. The exceptions are all smaller than about 150 meters in diameter, with an abrupt cutoff for asteroids larger than 200 meters. The evident conclusion—that asteroids larger than 200 meters across are rubble piles—agrees with recent computer modeling of collisions. A collision can blast a large asteroid to bits, but those bits will usually be moving slower than their mutual escape velocity (the lowest velocity that a body must have in order to escape the orbit of a planet). Over several hours, gravity will reassemble all but the fastest pieces into a rubble pile.
 
Question: The primary purpose of the passage is to

refute an unconventional theory regarding asteroid collisions

express doubt regarding the validity of evidence offered up by several notable astronomers

explain how earlier evidence used to describe an aspect of asteroids was misleading

explore common features of an asteroid in order to provide support for a theory

discuss how one explanation of an astronomical phenomenon is most likely correct

Question 48 of 67

Question 49 of 67

49. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
The ‘trophic contamination hypothesis’ posits that shorebirds accumulate industrial and urban pollution at stopover sites, toxins that are subsequently released in sudden high doses as fat is burned during migratory flights, disrupting the bird’s ability to make migratory decisions. For example, large contaminant doses might hamper refueling by altering the satiation signal in shorebirds so that they do not accumulate sufficient fat for migration. A recent study found that, out of those shorebirds that were unable to migrate, some weighed as much as 20% less than the average migrating bird of their species. Whether such findings are a result of shorebirds suffering from trophic contamination, or whether such birds simply cut their migrations short by landing in a foreign ecosystem, is unlikely to be resolved until further studies are conducted.
 
One promising line of research involves organochlorines, toxins deposited on mudflats in the 1970s and 1980s, now buried by sediments but finally close enough to the surface to be of issue to foraging shorebirds. Organochlorines should be more accessible to long-billed shorebirds that probe deeply for prey than to short-billed species that forage at or near the surface. We predict that an increased number of long-billed shorebirds will either be unable to migrate or will be found along an aberrant flight path.
 
Question: According to the passage, the long-billed shorebird is expected to be more likely than the short-billed shorebird to have trouble migrating because

it is more vulnerable to the effects of organochlorines

it typically is unable to differentiate between a foreign ecosystem and a familiar one

it stops feeding before it is fully satiated

it grazes in parts of the mudflat in which the surface is known to have a higher concentration of organochlorines

it digs deeper into the earth and is therefore more likely to encounter toxins

Question 49 of 67

Question 50 of 67

50. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
The ‘trophic contamination hypothesis’ posits that shorebirds accumulate industrial and urban pollution at stopover sites, toxins that are subsequently released in sudden high doses as fat is burned during migratory flights, disrupting the bird’s ability to make migratory decisions. For example, large contaminant doses might hamper refueling by altering the satiation signal in shorebirds so that they do not accumulate sufficient fat for migration. A recent study found that, out of those shorebirds that were unable to migrate, some weighed as much as 20% less than the average migrating bird of their species. Whether such findings are a result of shorebirds suffering from trophic contamination, or whether such birds simply cut their migrations short by landing in a foreign ecosystem, is unlikely to be resolved until further studies are conducted.
 
One promising line of research involves organochlorines, toxins deposited on mudflats in the 1970s and 1980s, now buried by sediments but finally close enough to the surface to be of issue to foraging shorebirds. Organochlorines should be more accessible to long-billed shorebirds that probe deeply for prey than to short-billed species that forage at or near the surface. We predict that an increased number of long-billed shorebirds will either be unable to migrate or will be found along an aberrant flight path.
 
Question: The most immediate effect on birds that have accumulated toxins in their fat deposits is

a tendency to navigate along a divergent flight path

an inability to realize when they have eaten a sufficient amount of food

a diminished capacity to retrace their migratory route

an increased likelihood to exhibit aggression towards other species

a loss in the amount of fat they carry

Question 50 of 67

Question 51 of 67

51. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
The ‘trophic contamination hypothesis’ posits that shorebirds accumulate industrial and urban pollution at stopover sites, toxins that are subsequently released in sudden high doses as fat is burned during migratory flights, disrupting the bird’s ability to make migratory decisions. For example, large contaminant doses might hamper refueling by altering the satiation signal in shorebirds so that they do not accumulate sufficient fat for migration. A recent study found that, out of those shorebirds that were unable to migrate, some weighed as much as 20% less than the average migrating bird of their species. Whether such findings are a result of shorebirds suffering from trophic contamination, or whether such birds simply cut their migrations short by landing in a foreign ecosystem, is unlikely to be resolved until further studies are conducted.
 
One promising line of research involves organochlorines, toxins deposited on mudflats in the 1970s and 1980s, now buried by sediments but finally close enough to the surface to be of issue to foraging shorebirds. Organochlorines should be more accessible to long-billed shorebirds that probe deeply for prey than to short-billed species that forage at or near the surface. We predict that an increased number of long-billed shorebirds will either be unable to migrate or will be found along an aberrant flight path.
 
Question: According to the passage, the author implies that foreign ecosystems have which potential effect on shorebirds?

They can make a bird more vulnerable to predators.

They can expose shorebirds to foreign toxins.

They can diminish a bird’s ability to navigate.

They can lead to a reduction in the bird’s weight.

They can cause a bird to become separated from its flock.

Question 51 of 67

Question 52 of 67

52. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
The US Constitution established both gold and silver as the basis of US currency: that is to say, it established a bimetallic standard for currency. This remained in place for about a century, until the Coinage Act of 1873, which embraced a “gold only” standard, a monometallic standard, effectively dropping silver as the basis of currency. Over the next several decades, advocates of bimetallism and advocates of the “gold only” standard fiercely debated.
 
The “gold only” advocates, such as William McKinley, argued that shifts in the relative value of the two precious metals could lead to wild fluctuations in the values of currency in a bimetallic system. Early in the United States history, Alexander Hamilton had tried to fix the gold-silver exchange rate by fiat, but of course, such restraints only inhibit the natural development of a free market.
 
Unemployment was high in the depression caused by the Panic of 1893, and many argued that these economic challenges had been triggered by abandoning bimetallism. One of the more prominent advocates of bimetallism was William Jennings Bryant: indeed, bimetallism was the very center of his presidential campaigns in 1896 and 1900, both of which he lost to McKinley. Bryant articulated the popular view that a “gold only” standard limited the money supply, and thus favored those who were already quite wealthy, against the interests of working people of all professions. He famously expressed this argument in his “Cross of Gold” speech at the 1896 Democratic National Convention, in which he argued that continuing the “gold only” standard would “crucify” the honest laboring classes on a “cross of gold.”
 
Despite the eloquence of Bryant’s arguments, history strongly favored the “gold-only” standard. The argument that increasing the money supply would lead to greater prosperity strikes us now as naïve: of course, we now understand that increasing the monetary supply can lead to runaway inflation, which hurts everyone. Furthermore, gold did not remain as limited as the advocates of bimetallism imagined. In the 1890s, scientists discovered a cyanide process that allowed workers to extract pure gold from much lower grade ore, thus significantly increasing domestic gold production. Additionally, the discovery of two immense gold deposits in South Africa substantially increased world gold supply. Thus, the “gold only” standard allowed for ample currency, and even robust prosperity in the 1920s, so bimetallism died a quiet death.
 
Question: It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that government attempts to control exchange rates

compromise the workings of a free economy

will inevitably lead to fiscal collapse

are usually favorable in the short-term

run counter to the tenets of the United States

lead to a greater chance for inflation

Question 52 of 67

Question 53 of 67

53. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
The US Constitution established both gold and silver as the basis of US currency: that is to say, it established a bimetallic standard for currency. This remained in place for about a century, until the Coinage Act of 1873, which embraced a “gold only” standard, a monometallic standard, effectively dropping silver as the basis of currency. Over the next several decades, advocates of bimetallism and advocates of the “gold only” standard fiercely debated.
 
The “gold only” advocates, such as William McKinley, argued that shifts in the relative value of the two precious metals could lead to wild fluctuations in the values of currency in a bimetallic system. Early in the United States history, Alexander Hamilton had tried to fix the gold-silver exchange rate by fiat, but of course, such restraints only inhibit the natural development of a free market.
 
Unemployment was high in the depression caused by the Panic of 1893, and many argued that these economic challenges had been triggered by abandoning bimetallism. One of the more prominent advocates of bimetallism was William Jennings Bryant: indeed, bimetallism was the very center of his presidential campaigns in 1896 and 1900, both of which he lost to McKinley. Bryant articulated the popular view that a “gold only” standard limited the money supply, and thus favored those who were already quite wealthy, against the interests of working people of all professions. He famously expressed this argument in his “Cross of Gold” speech at the 1896 Democratic National Convention, in which he argued that continuing the “gold only” standard would “crucify” the honest laboring classes on a “cross of gold.”
 
Despite the eloquence of Bryant’s arguments, history strongly favored the “gold-only” standard. The argument that increasing the money supply would lead to greater prosperity strikes us now as naïve: of course, we now understand that increasing the monetary supply can lead to runaway inflation, which hurts everyone. Furthermore, gold did not remain as limited as the advocates of bimetallism imagined. In the 1890s, scientists discovered a cyanide process that allowed workers to extract pure gold from much lower grade ore, thus significantly increasing domestic gold production. Additionally, the discovery of two immense gold deposits in South Africa substantially increased world gold supply. Thus, the “gold only” standard allowed for ample currency, and even robust prosperity in the 1920s, so bimetallism died a quiet death.
 
Question: According to the passage, bimetallism was not enduring because it

made unwarranted conclusions concerning the connection between value and metals

connection between value and metals was not adopted by those responsible for the shaping of economic policy

resulted in persistent inflation that plagued all levels of the economy

did not allow for the possibility of a third monometallic standard

was based on false assumptions regarding both the money supply and the supply of gold

Question 53 of 67

Question 54 of 67

54. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
The US Constitution established both gold and silver as the basis of US currency: that is to say, it established a bimetallic standard for currency. This remained in place for about a century, until the Coinage Act of 1873, which embraced a “gold only” standard, a monometallic standard, effectively dropping silver as the basis of currency. Over the next several decades, advocates of bimetallism and advocates of the “gold only” standard fiercely debated.
 
The “gold only” advocates, such as William McKinley, argued that shifts in the relative value of the two precious metals could lead to wild fluctuations in the values of currency in a bimetallic system. Early in the United States history, Alexander Hamilton had tried to fix the gold-silver exchange rate by fiat, but of course, such restraints only inhibit the natural development of a free market.
 
Unemployment was high in the depression caused by the Panic of 1893, and many argued that these economic challenges had been triggered by abandoning bimetallism. One of the more prominent advocates of bimetallism was William Jennings Bryant: indeed, bimetallism was the very center of his presidential campaigns in 1896 and 1900, both of which he lost to McKinley. Bryant articulated the popular view that a “gold only” standard limited the money supply, and thus favored those who were already quite wealthy, against the interests of working people of all professions. He famously expressed this argument in his “Cross of Gold” speech at the 1896 Democratic National Convention, in which he argued that continuing the “gold only” standard would “crucify” the honest laboring classes on a “cross of gold.”
 
Despite the eloquence of Bryant’s arguments, history strongly favored the “gold-only” standard. The argument that increasing the money supply would lead to greater prosperity strikes us now as naïve: of course, we now understand that increasing the monetary supply can lead to runaway inflation, which hurts everyone. Furthermore, gold did not remain as limited as the advocates of bimetallism imagined. In the 1890s, scientists discovered a cyanide process that allowed workers to extract pure gold from much lower grade ore, thus significantly increasing domestic gold production. Additionally, the discovery of two immense gold deposits in South Africa substantially increased world gold supply. Thus, the “gold only” standard allowed for ample currency, and even robust prosperity in the 1920s, so bimetallism died a quiet death.
 
Question: The author of the passage believes William Jennings Bryant’s argument that a gold standard favors the rich to be

somewhat relevant, because it accounts for a common trend seen throughout the history of bimetallism

lacking validity, because it believes increasing the money supply will benefit a segment of the population

without merit, because it is not based on actual historical accounts

not entirely accurate, because it overemphasizes the role of silver in regulating the money supply

partially correct, because it described some of the class differences between the rich and the poor

Question 54 of 67

Question 55 of 67

55. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
The US Constitution established both gold and silver as the basis of US currency: that is to say, it established a bimetallic standard for currency. This remained in place for about a century, until the Coinage Act of 1873, which embraced a “gold only” standard, a monometallic standard, effectively dropping silver as the basis of currency. Over the next several decades, advocates of bimetallism and advocates of the “gold only” standard fiercely debated.
 
The “gold only” advocates, such as William McKinley, argued that shifts in the relative value of the two precious metals could lead to wild fluctuations in the values of currency in a bimetallic system. Early in the United States history, Alexander Hamilton had tried to fix the gold-silver exchange rate by fiat, but of course, such restraints only inhibit the natural development of a free market.
 
Unemployment was high in the depression caused by the Panic of 1893, and many argued that these economic challenges had been triggered by abandoning bimetallism. One of the more prominent advocates of bimetallism was William Jennings Bryant: indeed, bimetallism was the very center of his presidential campaigns in 1896 and 1900, both of which he lost to McKinley. Bryant articulated the popular view that a “gold only” standard limited the money supply, and thus favored those who were already quite wealthy, against the interests of working people of all professions. He famously expressed this argument in his “Cross of Gold” speech at the 1896 Democratic National Convention, in which he argued that continuing the “gold only” standard would “crucify” the honest laboring classes on a “cross of gold.”
 
Despite the eloquence of Bryant’s arguments, history strongly favored the “gold-only” standard. The argument that increasing the money supply would lead to greater prosperity strikes us now as naïve: of course, we now understand that increasing the monetary supply can lead to runaway inflation, which hurts everyone. Furthermore, gold did not remain as limited as the advocates of bimetallism imagined. In the 1890s, scientists discovered a cyanide process that allowed workers to extract pure gold from much lower grade ore, thus significantly increasing domestic gold production. Additionally, the discovery of two immense gold deposits in South Africa substantially increased world gold supply. Thus, the “gold only” standard allowed for ample currency, and even robust prosperity in the 1920s, so bimetallism died a quiet death.
 
Question: One reason advocates of bimetallism did not favor a “gold only” standard was that they believed that

the supply of gold was limited

it would increase the money supply

shifts in the prices of gold and silver were unpredictable

it could lead to rampant inflation

silver provided a check against deflation

Question 55 of 67

Question 56 of 67

56. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
Prof. Hernandez’s monumental work The History of Central America covers everything about the region from the origin of the Mesoamerican period to the end of the Cold War. While the book has several informative maps and charts, many of the chapters spend less time describing facts and more time explaining Prof. Hernandez’s theories. Indeed, the last two chapters consist exclusively of his exposition of theory of the role of Central America in post WWII world politics. Therefore, properly speaking, this book is not a history book.
 
Question: Which of the following is an assumption that supports drawing the conclusion above from the reasons given for that conclusion?

Some history books consist almost exclusively of catalogues of historical facts.

Different historians have different understanding of the relative importance between facts and theories within the study of history.

Historians should be more explicit than most are now about the theoretical framework with which they write.

History as a discipline is concerned only with historical facts, not with the theoretical explanations of those facts.

Most books that present a wealth of historical facts include maps and charts as well.

Question 56 of 67

Question 57 of 67

57. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
Diomedes Motors has just decided to start using Rapilux Tires on most models of its new cars. The tires cost the same as the previous tires, and the change in tires will not change the sticker price of any car, nor will it change the profit on the sale of any particular car. Nevertheless, the CEO of Diomedes Motors expects this change in tires to increase Diomedes’ profits in the coming year.
 
Question: Which of the following, if true, provides the best reason for the expectation?

The new Rapilux Tires facilitate loading the new cars onto the trucks that deliver them to the Diomedes showroom.

The change to Rapilux Tires in most Diomedes models moves those models to the highest safety rating category; several national consumer advocacy groups give focused advertising to cars in this category.

Since Diomedes has replaced the tires on only some of its models, it can continue to accommodate car buyers who prefer the older tire type.

Few car buyers are likely to decide against buying a Diomedes Motors model simply because it now comes with Rapilux Tires.

Some of the tires previously used on these particular Diomedes models are being phased out by those tire manufacturers, and would have to be replaced anyway, and no tire that would fit these Diomedes Models is any cheaper than the Rapilux Tires chosen.

Question 57 of 67

Question 58 of 67

58. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
India ranks fifth in the world production of coffee. Popular thought has long associated India with tea and especially with masala chai, but clearly, we need to recognize India as one of the great coffee-drinking nations as well.
 
Question: This argument is flawed primarily because the author

fails to distinguish between coffee production and coffee consumption

does not supply information about all beverages people drink in India

depends on popular thought rather than on documented research findings

does not specify the exact quantity of coffee produced by any nation

makes no references to the reputed health benefits of coffee

Question 58 of 67

Question 59 of 67

59. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
Last year, a woman was able to demonstrate that she contracted a bad case of food poisoning from a meal at one Chinese restaurant in Bairenville, and she successfully sued the restaurant for a large sum of money. The story was popular in the town, and the size of the financial settlement made the national news. This year, we have seen a number of “copycat” suits filed against each one of the eleven Chinese restaurants in Bairenville, forcing these restaurants to hire lawyers and take steps to defend themselves in court.
 
Question: Which of following conclusions can most properly be drawn from the information above?

Patrons of Chinese restaurants in Bairenville contract food poisoning at much higher rates than do patrons of any other kind of restaurant in Bairenville.

For each of the eleven Chinese restaurants in Bairenville, at least one person has contracted food poisoning from a meal on some occasion.

The cooking methods used for Chinese food are less likely to kill germs than are the cooking methods used in other cuisines.

This year, a number of citizens of Bairenville have won substantial settlements as the result of lawsuits.

This year, some restaurants in Bairenville have been subjected to legal expenses, irrespective of whether any of their patrons have suffered from food poisoning.

Question 59 of 67

Question 60 of 67

60. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
The Interstate Bridge over the Apache River, built in the 1950s, shows a substantial amount of rust: as much as 45% of its surface is coated in rust. Community activists have argued that the bridge presents a hazard: it is likely to collapse in places where it has rusted through. Professors of mechanical engineering at the local university did an extensive analysis of the bridge. These professors and their graduate students determined that 98% of the rust on the bridge exists on the surface only, and actually seals the underlying steel from the corrosive influence of the elements. The results of this academic study suggest that the bridge is safe for continued use.
 
Question: In the argument given, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles?

The first is evidence in support of the conclusion; the second is that conclusion.

The first is the main conclusion of the argument; the second provides evidence that calls this conclusion into question.

The first is evidence taken to support one conclusion; the second provides evidence that calls this conclusion into question.

The first is a position that the argument opposes; the second is the conclusion of the argument.

The first is an interpretation of evidence; the second calls that evidence into question.

Question 60 of 67

Question 61 of 67

61. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
A luxury apartment condo recently opened up along the Biltmore’s waterfront. Within the first two months, 80% of the standard units in the first ten of the condo’s twelve stories were sold. Nonetheless, only two of the eight penthouses, all of which are located in the top two stories of the building, have sold. In order to sell the remaining six penthouses, the corporation that owns the property, should drop the rate of the penthouses by 20%.
 
Question: Which of the following, if true, would argue against the proposal above?

Typically, the very first unit to sell in a luxury condo is a standard unit.

Biltmore has recently suffered a recession and economists do not predict an imminent recovery.

Four of the six penthouses yet to be sold face the north side of the city, away from the waterfront.

There have been so many buyers ready to purchase the penthouses that apartment management has been carefully selecting those applicants with the best credit histories.

After the proposed discount each penthouse will only be 15% more costly than a standard unit.

Question 61 of 67

Question 62 of 67

62. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
A minor league baseball franchise experienced a drop in attendance this week after they suffered three losses by margins of ten runs or more last week. Many spectators of those games wrote letters to the editors of the local sporting news, complaining of the poor play of the team in those three losses. Nevertheless, the front office of this baseball franchise maintains that the team’s poor play in those three losses has nothing to do with this week’s decline in attendance.
 
Question: Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the position held by the front office of the baseball franchise?

The spectators who wrote letters to the local sporting news were long-standing fans of this minor league baseball team.

Many minor league baseball franchises attribute a drop in attendance to the quality of play of the team only after a string of losses.

Other minor league teams in that region of the state reported a similar drop in attendance this week.

This was not the first time this team suffered multiple lopsided losses in a single week, prompting similar letters to the local sporting news.

This minor league team is over four hours from the closest major league team, so many of the minor league team’s fans do not often attend major league games.

Question 62 of 67

Question 63 of 67

63. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
Art historian: Successful forgeries tend to be those most recently painted. While such a phenomenon may sound counterintuitive, a forger is able to exploit current modes of aesthetics to create paintings that appeal to the eye of his or her contemporaries. This very quality, however, is what makes those paintings seem amateurish to subsequent generations. As a result, a majority of forgeries are identified as such roughly twenty-five years after their creation.
 
Question: Which of the following is an assumption upon which the argument rests?

A generation consists of exactly twenty-five years.

Computer analysis, which does not rely on current aesthetic trends, can often determine with a high degree of accuracy the legitimacy of a painting.

What is deemed aesthetically pleasing does not change in the course of twenty-five years.

A piece of art determined to be a forgery does not, after a period of twenty-five years, become valued for its own intrinsic merits.

Those who expose the majority of paintings as forgeries are guided by aesthetic considerations.

Question 63 of 67

Question 64 of 67

64. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
During the period in which there are no competitive races, two runners–Runners A and Runners B–take part in an experiment measuring their VO2 max, the volume of oxygen an athlete can use. During these sessions, the runners engaged in moderate aerobic activity, or a sustained heart rate between 146-154 beats per minute. At the end of the sessions, Runner A had a greater VO2 max than did Runner B. Therefore, once the two runners begin identical intensive training–sessions involving over 168 beats per minute– for the race season, Runner A will continue to have the greater VO2 max, assuming that neither become injured and that both train with similar intensity.
 
Question: Which of the following is an assumption upon which the argument rests?

Runner A and Runner B had similar VO2 maxes upon entering the study.

Regarding their VO2 maxes, runners respond equally to intensive training.

Intensive training involves sessions in which athletes maintain a heartbeat over 168 beats per minute.

The amount one trains does not influence one’s VO2 max.

During the experiment, Runner A did not always have the greater VO2 max than Runner B.

Question 64 of 67

Question 65 of 67

65. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
A deadly virus that has claimed the lives of local villagers has been traced to the spotted fruit bat, in which the virus resides between periodic outbreaks. Biologists speculate that the bat might also be one of the reservoirs for a number of other viruses that have led to village fatalities. The local government has proposed to eliminate the spotted fruit bat by cutting off passageways that allow the bat to emerge from its caves. Once the bat is unable to emerge from the caves, the government will have achieved its objective of reducing the number of village deaths attributable to viruses.
 
Strong: Which of the following, if true, would best indicate that the government’s plan will not lead to its objective?

The bat caves in which the spotted fruit bat dwell are filled with bat dung, or guano, which provides a significant source of revenue for the country.

Another species of bat has been observed feeding on small animals, and has also been reported to have bitten human beings, who report feeling severely weakened after awakening from the attack.

Many villagers who would have otherwise succumbed to a viral disease have been cured after ingesting a serum derived from a local flower whose only means of germinating is via the fur of the spotted fruit bat.

The spotted fruit bat dwells deep inside the caves where government workers, despite using sophisticated technology, have been unable to penetrate completely.

Though there are several other species of fruit bats in the area, the spotted fruit bat is the only one that serves as a reservoir for deadly viruses, which result in a majority of the village’s fatalities.

Question 65 of 67

Question 66 of 67

66. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
The waters off the coast of Iceland are filled with pods of killer whales, which migrate there during the summer. Wildlife parks that rely on the killer whales for entertainment hunt the killer whale almost exclusively in the water of Iceland, because strict sanctions forbid them from doing so off the coast of North America, an area also abundant in killer whales. Since Iceland recently gave into pressure from international groups opposed to the hunting of killer whales, it too will forbid the hunting of killer whales off its coast. Therefore, all wildlife parks will be forced to end their shows featuring killer whales once their current killer whales are unable to perform.
 
Question: All of the following cast doubt on the conclusion of the argument EXCEPT?

The recent ban only extends to within one hundred miles of Iceland, though killer whales are plentiful along the shores of Greenland, which fall outside this range.

The incoming prime minister of Canada, who is more conservative, is planning on lifting the ban on hunting killer whales off the coast of Canada.

In-park killer whale births have become increasingly common, especially in those wildlife parks that harbor a large number of killer whales.

Some wildlife parks are involved in the illegal trade of killer whales.

It is nearly impossible to catch killer whales in deep waters, so hunters typically rely on luring killer whales into coves.

Question 66 of 67

Question 67 of 67

67. Choose the option that best answers the question. 
Judge Brown has shown a marked preference over the past decade for sentencing criminals to make amends for their crimes—for example, by apologizing to the victim—rather than sending them to jail. He argues that the rate of recidivism, or the likelihood that the criminal will commit another offense, is only 15% when he does so, while the average rate of recidivism in the country as a whole is above 35%. Judge Brown thus argues that the criminal justice system is most effective when criminals make amends for their crime, rather than serving time.
 
Question: Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports Judge Brown’s claim?

The majority of the defendants that the judge sees are already repeat offenders who are statistically more likely to continue their offenses.

The offenders who went on to commit a crime after making amends were less likely to commit a violent crime than were those who were repeat offenders who served time.

Many of the sentenced criminals who made amends were those who expressed to Judge Brown a willingness to do so.

Victims of the crimes were happier when the judged sentenced criminals to make amends, rather than when he sentenced them to serve time.

A judge in a neighboring district found that, in his jurisdiction, criminals sentenced to make amends committed repeat offenses in 22% of cases.

Question 67 of 67

If you want your results emailed to you please submit your email address. We will not share your email with anyone! Clicking “submit” will also display the results on this page.

Your email address:

 Loading…

 

GMAT Practice Test Answers and Explanations

After you finish each section of this GMAT practice test, you’ll see the answers and explanations. The correct answer choices will appear right on screen in this post, and there will be a clickable link to an answer explanation page for each question. And after you’ve taken the test, this thorough answer key will still be available for review. It will be one click away, on our GMAT practice test answer page.

And I have some especially good news about these answer explanations: you get a text explanation and a video explanation for every question! Reviewing both explanations is particularly useful because the text and video explanations often explain the test in two different ways. It’s a great way to explore and discover your own best learning style.

Adaptivity: A Key Difference Between This GMAT Practice Test and the Real Exam

In this Magoosh sample GMAT, the GMAT example questions you see are not adaptive. But on the real test, they are.

What is an adaptive GMAT Test?

In a nutshell, the real GMAT test is adaptive. What does this mean? Well, on the actual exam, there is not a fixed, predetermined set of questions. Instead, you get a computer adaptive test, in which the GMAT questions that pop up on your test screen will have a different difficulty level, based on how you did on the previous questions.

So if you do well on several consecutive questions, the real GMAT will then start making your question level more difficult. But if you do poorly on several questions in a row on test day, the exam will adapt and give you easier questions.

Why We Made this Test Non-Adaptive

Having a fixed set of questions allows us to give you a mix of questions that reflects the mix of topics the average GMAT test-taker sees on the real exam. In an adaptive GMAT practice test, you might get a disproportionate amount of easier topics, especially if you’re just beginning your GMAT studies.

How to Take an Adaptive GMAT Practice Test from Magoosh

The disadvantage, of course, is that this GMAT test sample cannot help you predict your GMAT score with pinpoint accuracy. Actual GMAT scoring is based on adaptive testing, with more points for harder questions and fewer points for easier ones. As you get further into your test prep and build more skills, you’ll want to start taking adaptive GMAT practice tests.

A Magoosh GMAT plan lets you choose between a live cohorted classes with an instructor (which includes all our lessons and practice questions) or access to the self-study option with the same high-quality lesson videos and questions. You can sign up today, or sample what we offer with a free 1-week trial.

When you do take an adaptive GMAT test (either the practice test or the real thing), use these pacing tips to help manage your time:

How to Get a Rough Estimate of Your Score Based on this Non-Adaptive GMAT Exam

A real GMAT score report considers the percentage of questions you got right, and then slightly adjusts the point value of each individual question based on its difficulty. “Point weight” can have a very significant impact on your score. But you can get a very rough approximate score by calculating the percentage on your own.

Both the Quant and Verbal sections have their own individual subscores. These subscores have a scaled score range of 0 to 60. So if you get, say, 70% of your Quant questions right on this test, your very rough estimated subscore for Quant would be 70% of the 60 point range (0.7*60 = 42).

Using your Verbal and Quantitative percentages, you can also make this kind of imperfect-but-helpful estimate for your whole composite score on this GMAT practice test. How, you may ask? Well, Magoosh actually has a chart for this! Check out the GMAT score chart in Sharat’s blog post “How to Calculate GMAT Scores.”

What to Expect from This GMAT Practice Exam

This GMAT practice test consists of the main portion of the GMAT exam: the Quantitative and Verbal sections. To help you learn more about how these sections are marked and how they contribute to your overall score, see our article “What’s a Good GMAT Score?”

With that in mind, let’s take a closer look at the Quant and Verbal sections of the GMAT.

The Quant Portion of the GMAT Test

The GMAT’s Quantitative Reasoning practice section has two multiple-choice question formats:

• Data Sufficiency (DS)
• Problem Solving (PS)

The Verbal Portion the GMAT Test

There are three general question types in GMAT Verbal:

• Reading Comprehension (RC)
• Critical Reasoning (CR)
• Sentence Correction (SC)

Where to Find GMAT Sample Questions for IR and AWA

The GMAT IR and GMAT AWA sections are not included in this test, because these parts of the GMAT, which are scored separately from the rest of the exam, are typically not as important on your business school application.

If you would like some GMAT sample questions for IR, you can check out our GMAT Integrated Reasoning practice post. And for AWA practice I recommend going straight to “the source.” The official makers of the test offer a PDF of every GMAT AWA question you might see on test day.

Official GMAT Practice Tests: Another Important Resource

I’m on the team that writes the Magoosh GMAT practice questions, and I can tell you that a lot of research goes into making sure they resemble the real thing as closely as possible. But in terms of quality, do you know what’s even better than a carefully researched imitation of the real thing? The actual real thing! Because of this, I always encourage students to use official GMAT practice tests alongside their Magoosh materials. In terms of quality, official GMAT prep is simply the best place to take a full length practice test.

The GMAT prep at the MBA.com store includes the most authentic adaptive GMAT practice tests you can take! And their offerings include two complete downloadable free GMAT practice tests, as well as four additional official practice tests that cost money. All of these official mock tests are full tests that include IR and AWA sections.

In addition to the free older-version tests, the makers of the real GMAT exam offer a few other nice free resources. I’ve already told you about their complete collection of GMAT AWA questions. But did you know they also have an 8 question GMAT mini-quiz? This quiz is a powerful “quick hit” study aid as you start your GMAT prep, since it covers all the basic question types in just 8 questions.

If you need even more resources, we’ve got you covered. Magoosh students get 40% off of official GMAT practice exams here.

Planning the Rest of Your GMAT Prep

To start your GMAT journey, we recommend taking the free GMAT Diagnostic Test to determine your strengths and weaknesses. If you’re looking to add a little more to your daily prep, check out our GMAT Question of the Day, featuring a new Quant or Verbal question for each day of the month!

Of course, there’s much more to preparing for test day then just going through GMAT practice sets or taking a GMAT practice test. You’ll also want a good road map to your prep activities.

Magoosh outlines quite a few different GMAT study timelines. We have study plans of different lengths that emphasize different learning needs, so there’s really something for everyone! Our study plans are designed to be adjustable and changeable, so you could treat them simply as an example of how you might build your own study schedule. But if you want to follow them closely, you should use the Magoosh lessons and questions we recommend.